Control of Microorganisms
10 August 2024Which of the following is a primary defense mechanism against microbial infections?
A) Strong immune system
B) High sugar intake
C) Chronic stress
D) Excessive sleep
Answer: A) Strong immune system
How does proper nutrition contribute to infection prevention?
A) By disrupting the balance of gut microbiota
B) By supporting immune function and increasing resistance to infections
C) By weakening the body's barriers against pathogens
D) By increasing the risk of secondary infections
Answer: B) By supporting immune function and increasing resistance to infections
What role does the skin play in protecting against infections?
A) It acts as a physical barrier to prevent pathogen entry
B) It helps to increase susceptibility to infections
C) It disrupts normal microbial flora
D) It enhances the growth of pathogens
Answer: A) It acts as a physical barrier to prevent pathogen entry
Which factor is least likely to contribute to a healthy microbiota?
A) Balanced diet with probiotics
B) Excessive use of antibiotics
C) Regular consumption of fiber-rich foods
D) Avoiding processed foods
Answer: B) Excessive use of antibiotics
What is the primary benefit of managing stress for infection prevention?
A) It disrupts immune function
B) It weakens physical barriers against pathogens
C) It enhances immune response and reduces susceptibility to infections
D) It increases the risk of microbial infections
Answer: C) It enhances immune response and reduces susceptibility to infections
How does adequate sleep support protection against infections?
A) By reducing the production of immune-regulating cytokines
B) By impairing the body’s ability to recognize pathogens
C) By promoting the production of cytokines that aid in immune responses
D) By increasing the risk of pathogen exposure
Answer: C) By promoting the production of cytokines that aid in immune responses
Why are vaccinations important in infection prevention?
A) They provide immunity by stimulating the immune system to recognize specific pathogens
B) They disrupt the balance of normal microbial flora
C) They increase the risk of infections by weakening the immune system
D) They are used to treat existing infections
Answer: A) They provide immunity by stimulating the immune system to recognize specific pathogens
Which of the following is an effective hygiene practice for reducing the risk of infections?
A) Avoiding handwashing
B) Regular cleaning of living spaces
C) Using shared personal items
D) Ignoring food safety practices
Answer: B) Regular cleaning of living spaces
What is the effect of maintaining a healthy microbiota on infection risk?
A) It increases susceptibility to infections
B) It provides a competitive environment against pathogens and supports immune function
C) It disrupts the body’s immune response
D) It weakens the body's natural defenses
Best Answer: B) It provides a competitive environment against pathogens and supports immune function
What is a potential consequence of poor nutritional status on infection risk?
A) Enhanced immune response
B) Decreased susceptibility to infections
C) Weakened immune system and increased infection risk
D) Improved barrier function
Answer: C) Weakened immune system and increased infection risk
What does the term "antimicrobial resistance" refer to?
A) The ability of microorganisms to be effectively treated by antibiotics
B) The capacity of microorganisms to withstand the effects of antimicrobial agents
C) The susceptibility of microorganisms to environmental conditions
D) The ability of humans to resist infections
Answer: B) The capacity of microorganisms to withstand the effects of antimicrobial agents
Which of the following is an example of antibiotic resistance?
A) Penicillin-susceptible Streptococcus
B) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
C) A healthy immune response to influenza
D) A non-infectious skin condition
Answer: B) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
What does "susceptibility" mean in the context of antimicrobial therapy?
A) The ability of an antibiotic to kill bacteria
B) The effectiveness of a drug in treating infections
C) The likelihood of microorganisms being affected by an antimicrobial agent
D) The resistance of a microorganism to various environmental conditions
Answer: C) The likelihood of microorganisms being affected by an antimicrobial agent
Which term describes an organism's inherent ability to evade the effects of an antibiotic?
A) Susceptibility
B) Resistance
C) Sensitivity
D) Reactivity
Answer: B) Resistance
A patient with a weakened immune system is more likely to have which of the following?
A) Increased resistance to infections
B) Decreased susceptibility to infections
C) Increased susceptibility to infections
D) Equal susceptibility to infections as a healthy individual
Answer: C) Increased susceptibility to infections
What is an example of acquired resistance?
A) Bacteria that are naturally resistant to antibiotics
B) Bacteria that develop resistance through genetic mutations or horizontal gene transfer
C) Individuals who have innate resistance to diseases
D) Microorganisms that are always susceptible to antibiotics
Answer: B) Bacteria that develop resistance through genetic mutations or horizontal gene transfer
How can susceptibility testing be useful in treating infections?
A) It helps to identify which antibiotics are effective against specific microorganisms
B) It determines the resistance patterns of all bacteria
C) It indicates the overall health of the patient
D) It measures the number of microorganisms in a sample
Answer: A) It helps to identify which antibiotics are effective against specific microorganisms
Which term is used to describe the natural ability of an organism to resist the effects of a drug?
A) Acquired resistance
B) Innate resistance
C) Antibiotic sensitivity
D) Drug effectiveness
Answer: B) Innate resistance
What is the impact of antimicrobial resistance on public health?
A) It improves treatment outcomes for infections
B) It makes infections easier to treat
C) It complicates treatment and increases the risk of treatment failure
D) It decreases the spread of infections
Answer: C) It complicates treatment and increases the risk of treatment failure
What is the primary characteristic of nonspecific resistance?
A) Targets specific pathogens
B) Provides immediate and broad protection against various pathogens
C) Develops memory of past infections
D) Involves only one type of immune cell
Answer: B) Provides immediate and broad protection against various pathogens
Which of the following is NOT a component of nonspecific resistance?
A) Skin
B) Natural killer (NK) cells
C) Specific antibodies
D) Inflammatory response
Answer: C) Specific antibodies
How does the inflammatory response contribute to nonspecific resistance?
A) By targeting specific pathogens with tailored antibodies
B) By increasing body temperature to inhibit pathogen growth
C) By promoting redness, heat, swelling, and pain to contain and eliminate pathogens
D) By creating a memory of the pathogen for future protection
Answer: C) By promoting redness, heat, swelling, and pain to contain and eliminate pathogens
Which of the following is an example of a chemical barrier in nonspecific resistance?
A) Skin cells
B) Mucous membranes
C) Gastric acid in the stomach
D) White blood cells
Answer: C) Gastric acid in the stomach
Which type of white blood cell is involved in phagocytosis as part of nonspecific resistance?
A) Lymphocytes
B) Neutrophils
C) Erythrocytes
D) Platelets
Answer: B) Neutrophils
What role does fever play in nonspecific resistance?
A) It provides a memory of the infection
B) It decreases the effectiveness of the immune response
C) It inhibits pathogen growth and enhances the immune response
D) It targets specific pathogens with antibodies
Answer: C) It inhibits pathogen growth and enhances the immune response
Which of the following is NOT a feature of nonspecific resistance?
A) Immediate response to pathogens
B) Specific targeting of individual pathogens
C) Physical and chemical barriers
D) Cellular defenses like phagocytosis
Answer: B) Specific targeting of individual pathogens
What is the main difference between nonspecific resistance and specific (adaptive) immunity?
A) Nonspecific resistance involves memory of past infections, while specific immunity does not.
B) Nonspecific resistance provides immediate, broad protection, while specific immunity targets specific pathogens and develops memory.
C) Nonspecific resistance is slower, while specific immunity acts immediately.
D) Nonspecific resistance involves antibodies, while specific immunity does not.
Answer: B) Nonspecific resistance provides immediate, broad protection, while specific immunity targets specific pathogens and develops memory.
Which physical barrier is a key component of nonspecific resistance?
A) Lymph nodes
B) Skin
C) Antibodies
D) Cytokines
Answer: B) Skin
Which of the following describes the lack of memory in nonspecific resistance?
A) It can remember past infections and respond more effectively.
B) It responds the same way to all pathogens regardless of prior exposure.
C) It involves specific antibody production for future infections.
D) It adapts and improves over time with repeated exposure.
Answer: B) It responds the same way to all pathogens regardless of prior exposure.
What is the primary function of the skin as part of nonspecific resistance?
A) To produce specific antibodies
B) To serve as a physical and chemical barrier against pathogens
C) To directly kill pathogens with enzymes
D) To facilitate adaptive immune responses
Answer: B) To serve as a physical and chemical barrier against pathogens
Which substance secreted by the skin helps to inhibit microbial growth?
A) Sweat
B) Mucus
C) Saliva
D) Gastric acid
Answer: A) Sweat
What role do mucous membranes play in nonspecific resistance?
A) They produce specific antibodies
B) They trap and expel pathogens through mucus
C) They directly kill pathogens with high temperatures
D) They provide long-term immunity against infections
Answer: B) They trap and expel pathogens through mucus
Which component of mucus helps to inhibit microbial growth?
A) Antibodies
B) Lysozymes
C) Red blood cells
D) Platelets
Best Answer: B) Lysozymes
How does the ciliary action in the respiratory tract contribute to nonspecific resistance?
A) By producing mucus that traps pathogens
B) By expelling pathogens through coordinated movement of cilia
C) By secreting antimicrobial peptides
D) By increasing the pH to kill pathogens
Best Answer: B) By expelling pathogens through coordinated movement of cilia
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the skin’s nonspecific resistance?
A) It acts as a physical barrier to pathogens
B) It produces antibodies specific to pathogens
C) It secretes sebum and sweat with antimicrobial properties
D) It hosts normal flora that competes with pathogens
Best Answer: B) It produces antibodies specific to pathogens
What is the role of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) in nonspecific resistance?
A) To provide a physical barrier against pathogens
B) To trap pathogens in mucus
C) To detect and respond to pathogens in mucosal areas
D) To produce specific antibodies against pathogens
Best Answer: C) To detect and respond to pathogens in mucosal areas
Which of the following substances in mucus contributes to its antimicrobial properties?
A) Salivary amylase
B) Gastric acid
C) Lysozymes
D) Antigen-specific antibodies
Best Answer: C) Lysozymes
What type of immune response is NOT typically associated with nonspecific resistance?
A) Physical barriers
B) Chemical barriers
C) Ciliary action
D) Production of specific antibodies
Best Answer: D) Production of specific antibodies
Which layer of the skin acts as the primary physical barrier against pathogens?
A) Dermis
B) Subcutaneous layer
C) Epidermis
D) Hypodermis
Best Answer: C) Epidermis
What is the primary role of phagocytes in the immune system?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To engulf and digest pathogens and debris
C) To directly kill infected cells
D) To enhance the production of white blood cells
Best Answer: B) To engulf and digest pathogens and debris
During phagocytosis, what is the name of the vesicle formed when the phagocyte engulfs a pathogen?
A) Lysosome
B) Phagolysosome
C) Phagosome
D) Endosome
Best Answer: C) Phagosome
What is the purpose of opsonization in phagocytosis?
A) To neutralize pathogens with antibodies
B) To enhance the recognition and uptake of pathogens by phagocytes
C) To directly kill pathogens with reactive oxygen species
D) To expel waste products from the phagocyte
Best Answer: B) To enhance the recognition and uptake of pathogens by phagocytes
Which cellular structure fuses with the phagosome to form the phagolysosome?
A) Mitochondria
B) Golgi apparatus
C) Lysosome
D) Ribosome
Best Answer: C) Lysosome
What type of substances are produced within the phagolysosome to help destroy pathogens?
A) Antibodies and cytokines
B) Enzymes and reactive oxygen species
C) Hormones and vitamins
D) Growth factors and nutrients
Answer: B) Enzymes and reactive oxygen species
Which of the following steps occurs last in the phagocytosis process?
A) Recognition and attachment of the pathogen
B) Fusion of the phagosome with the lysosome
C) Formation of the phagolysosome
D) Expulsion of indigestible material from the phagocyte
Answer: D) Expulsion of indigestible material from the phagocyte
What is the role of reactive oxygen species (ROS) in phagocytosis?
A) To neutralize pathogens by increasing the pH
B) To degrade proteins and carbohydrates
C) To enhance the production of phagocytes
D) To kill pathogens through oxidative damage
Answer: D) To kill pathogens through oxidative damage
Which of the following is NOT involved in the engulfment phase of phagocytosis?
A) Formation of the phagosome
B) Activation of lysosomal enzymes
C) Extension of the phagocyte’s membrane around the pathogen
D) Binding of the pathogen to phagocyte receptors
Best Answer: B) Activation of lysosomal enzymes
Which cells are primarily responsible for phagocytosis in the immune system?
A) Red blood cells
B) T lymphocytes
C) Phagocytes (e.g., macrophages, neutrophils)
D) Platelets
Answer: C) Phagocytes (e.g., macrophages, neutrophils)
Which of the following best describes specific resistance?
A) Immediate, broad protection against all pathogens
B) Tailored immune response to specific antigens with memory
C) General physical and chemical barriers
D) Non-specific defense mechanisms
Answer: B) Tailored immune response to specific antigens with memory
What is the primary characteristic of innate resistance?
A) Specific targeting of pathogens with antibodies
B) Immediate, non-specific defense mechanisms
C) Development of immunological memory
D) Activation of T and B lymphocytes
Answer: B) Immediate, non-specific defense mechanisms
Which of the following components is involved in innate resistance?
A) T lymphocytes
B) B lymphocytes
C) Phagocytes
D) Antibodies
Answer: C) Phagocytes
Which type of immunity is characterized by the transfer of antibodies from one individual to another?
A) Active immunity
B) Passive immunity
C) Innate immunity
D) Specific immunity
Answer: B) Passive immunity
How does active immunity differ from passive immunity?
A) Active immunity provides immediate protection, while passive immunity develops over time.
B) Active immunity involves the production of antibodies by the individual's own immune system, while passive immunity involves the transfer of antibodies from another source.
C) Active immunity is short-lived, while passive immunity is long-lasting.
D) Active immunity is not specific, while passive immunity targets specific pathogens.
Answer: B) Active immunity involves the production of antibodies by the individual's own immune system, while passive immunity involves the transfer of antibodies from another source.
What is an example of a physical barrier in innate resistance?
A) Antibodies
B) Skin
C) T lymphocytes
D) Cytokines
Answer: B) Skin
Which of the following is NOT a feature of specific resistance?
A) Targets specific pathogens
B) Provides immediate protection
C) Develops memory of past infections
D) Involves B cells and T cells
Answer: B) Provides immediate protection
Which of the following describes the immune response involving T and B lymphocytes?
A) Innate immunity
B) Passive immunity
C) Specific resistance
D) Physical barriers
Answer: C) Specific resistance
What type of immunity is conferred by vaccination?
A) Passive immunity
B) Natural immunity
C) Active immunity
D) Innate immunity
Answer: C) Active immunity
What is the primary function of innate immunity?
A) To recognize and remember specific pathogens
B) To provide immediate, general defense against a wide range of pathogens
C) To produce antibodies for specific pathogens
D) To enhance the function of T and B cells
Answer: B) To provide immediate, general defense against a wide range of pathogens
Which type of immunity is acquired through direct exposure to a pathogen and results in long-term protection?
A) Active artificial immunity
B) Passive natural immunity
C) Active natural immunity
D) Passive artificial immunity
Answer: C) Active natural immunity
What type of immunity is achieved through vaccination?
A) Passive artificial immunity
B) Active natural immunity
C) Passive natural immunity
D) Active artificial immunity
Answer: D) Active artificial immunity
Which type of acquired immunity involves the transfer of antibodies from the mother to the infant?
A) Active artificial immunity
B) Passive artificial immunity
C) Active natural immunity
D) Passive natural immunity
Best Answer: D) Passive natural immunity
What is the primary characteristic of passive artificial immunity?
A) Immediate protection from antibodies administered from an external source
B) Long-term immunity developed through natural infection
C) Temporary immunity gained through vaccination
D) Natural production of antibodies following exposure to a pathogen
Best Answer: A) Immediate protection from antibodies administered from an external source
Which type of immunity involves the administration of immune globulins or antiserums?
A) Active natural immunity
B) Active artificial immunity
C) Passive artificial immunity
D) Passive natural immunity
Answer: C) Passive artificial immunity
Which type of immunity results from the production of antibodies by the individual's own immune system following exposure to an antigen?
A) Passive natural immunity
B) Active artificial immunity
C) Active natural immunity
D) Passive artificial immunity
Best Answer: C) Active natural immunity
Which of the following provides immediate but temporary protection against specific pathogens?
A) Active natural immunity
B) Active artificial immunity
C) Passive natural immunity
D) Passive artificial immunity
Best Answer: D) Passive artificial immunity
What is a key difference between active and passive immunity?
A) Active immunity involves the transfer of antibodies, while passive immunity involves the body's own response.
B) Passive immunity is long-lasting, while active immunity provides immediate protection.
C) Active immunity involves the body’s own production of antibodies, while passive immunity involves the transfer of pre-formed antibodies.
D) Passive immunity is developed through natural infection, while active immunity is gained through vaccination.
Best Answer: C) Active immunity involves the body’s own production of antibodies, while passive immunity involves the transfer of pre-formed antibodies.
Which type of immunity is usually provided by breast milk?
A) Active natural immunity
B) Active artificial immunity
C) Passive natural immunity
D) Passive artificial immunity
Best Answer: C) Passive natural immunity
Which form of immunity is typically short-lived and does not involve the development of memory cells?
A) Active natural immunity
B) Active artificial immunity
C) Passive artificial immunity
D) Passive natural immunity
Best Answer: C) Passive artificial immunity
Which of the following cells are primarily responsible for humoral immunity?
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) Macrophages
D) Neutrophils
Answer: B) B cells
Which of the following best describes the role of antibodies in humoral immunity?
A) They directly kill infected cells.
B) They present antigens to T cells.
C) They neutralize pathogens or mark them for destruction by other immune cells.
D) They produce cytokines to regulate immune responses.
Answer: C) They neutralize pathogens or mark them for destruction by other immune cells.
In cell-mediated immunity, which type of T cell is primarily involved in directly killing infected cells?
A) Helper T cells
B) Regulatory T cells
C) Cytotoxic T cells
D) Memory T cells
Answer: C) Cytotoxic T cells
Which of the following scenarios is an example of cell-mediated immunity?
A) Production of antibodies against a bacterial infection
B) Phagocytosis of bacteria by macrophages
C) Activation of cytotoxic T cells to destroy virus-infected cells
D) Neutralization of toxins by antibodies
Answer: C) Activation of cytotoxic T cells to destroy virus-infected cells
Helper T cells (CD4+) are involved in which of the following functions?
A) Directly killing cancer cells
B) Assisting B cells in antibody production
C) Presenting antigens to cytotoxic T cells
D) Producing antibodies
Answer: B) Assisting B cells in antibody production
Which type of immunity is primarily responsible for responding to extracellular pathogens?
A) Cell-mediated immunity
B) Humoral immunity
C) Innate immunity
D) Both cell-mediated and humoral immunity
Answer: B) Humoral immunity
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cell-mediated immunity?
A) Involves T cells
B) Targets intracellular pathogens
C) Produces antibodies
D) Involves antigen presentation
Answer: C) Produces antibodies
Which type of T cell helps regulate the immune response and prevent autoimmunity?
A) Cytotoxic T cells
B) Helper T cells
C) Regulatory T cells
D) Memory T cells
Answer: C) Regulatory T cells
Which response is responsible for long-term protection against previously encountered pathogens?
A) Immediate hypersensitivity response
B) Humoral immunity
C) Cell-mediated immunity
D) Immunological memory
Answer: D) Immunological memory
Which antibody class is the most abundant in blood and provides long-term protection against infections?
A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgG
Answer: D) IgG
Which antibody class is primarily involved in allergic reactions and defense against parasitic infections?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgE
Answer: D) IgE
Which antibody class is the first to be produced in response to an infection and is effective in forming antigen-antibody complexes?
A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgD
Answer: B) IgM
Which antibody class is found primarily in mucosal areas, such as the gut and respiratory tract, and in secretions like saliva and breast milk?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgE
Answer: C) IgA
Which antibody class functions as a receptor on B cells that have not been exposed to antigens and helps regulate B cell activation?
A) IgG
B) IgA
C) IgD
D) IgM
Answer: C) IgD
Which antibody class can cross the placenta to provide passive immunity to the fetus?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgM
D) IgG
Answer: D) IgG
Which antibody class is involved in activating the complement system and is found primarily in blood and lymphatic fluid?
A) IgG
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgE
Answer: C) IgM
Which antibody class is bound to mast cells and basophils and triggers histamine release during allergic reactions?
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgD
D) IgE
Answer: D) IgE
Which of the following antibodies is found in secretions such as tears and breast milk, and provides protection at mucosal surfaces?
A) IgG
B) IgD
C) IgM
D) IgA
Answer: D) IgA
Which antibody class primarily functions as a receptor on immature B cells and plays a role in the regulation of B cell activation?
A) IgE
B) IgD
C) IgG
D) IgA
Answer: B) IgM
What is the main function of immunological memory?
A) To prevent autoimmune diseases
B) To respond more rapidly and effectively to previously encountered pathogens
C) To destroy all foreign substances
D) To suppress the immune response
Answer: B) To respond more rapidly and effectively to previously encountered pathogens
Which cells are primarily responsible for immunological memory?
A) Phagocytes
B) Memory B cells and memory T cells
C) Helper T cells
D) Regulatory T cells
Answer: B) Memory B cells and memory T cells
What does immune tolerance primarily prevent?
A) Immune system overactivation
B) The immune system from attacking foreign pathogens
C) The immune system from attacking the body’s own tissues
D) Memory cell formation
Answer: C) The immune system from attacking the body’s own tissues
Which process involves the elimination or inactivation of self-reactive immune cells during their development?
A) Peripheral tolerance
B) Central tolerance
C) Immunological memory
D) Antigen presentation
Answer: B) Central tolerance
How does specificity contribute to the immune response?
A) By allowing the immune system to respond to any foreign substance
B) By ensuring that immune responses are targeted against specific antigens
C) By enhancing the production of antibodies
D) By promoting the destruction of all pathogens
Answer: B) By ensuring that immune responses are targeted against specific antigens
Which of the following is an example of immune tolerance failure?
A) Rapid response to a new viral infection
B) Development of allergies to pollen
C) Autoimmune diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis
D) Enhanced antibody production after vaccination
Answer: C) Autoimmune diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis
What is the role of memory T cells in the immune system?
A) To activate B cells during the initial immune response
B) To quickly recognize and respond to previously encountered antigens
C) To destroy pathogens directly upon first exposure
D) To produce antibodies against pathogens
Answer: B) To quickly recognize and respond to previously encountered antigens
Which mechanism is responsible for distinguishing between self and non-self in the immune system?
A) Specificity
B) Memory
C) Tolerance
D) Complement activation
Answer: C) Tolerance
What type of immune response is characterized by high specificity for a particular antigen?
A) Innate immune response
B) Adaptive immune response
C) Inflammatory response
D) Complement response
Answer: B) Adaptive immune response
Which of the following best describes the role of antigen specificity in immunity?
A) Broad recognition of all pathogens
B) Targeted destruction of specific pathogens
C) General activation of all immune cells
D) Prevention of pathogen entry into the body
Answer: B) Targeted destruction of specific pathogens
What is a key feature of the primary immune response?
A) Rapid response within hours
B) Production of high levels of IgG antibodies
C) Initial lag period of several days to weeks
D) Immediate activation of memory cells
Answer: C) Initial lag period of several days to weeks
Which type of immune response involves memory B cells and memory T cells?
A) Primary immune response
B) Secondary immune response
C) Innate immune response
D) Inflammatory response
Answer: B) Secondary immune response
In which immune response is IgM typically the first antibody produced?
A) Secondary immune response
B) Primary immune response
C) Innate immune response
D) Immediate hypersensitivity response
Answer: B) Primary immune response
How does the secondary immune response differ from the primary response in terms of antibody production?
A) It produces antibodies more slowly.
B) It mainly produces IgM antibodies.
C) It produces antibodies more quickly and at higher levels, primarily IgG.
D) It does not produce antibodies.
Answer: C) It produces antibodies more quickly and at higher levels, primarily IgG.
What is the typical latency period for the secondary immune response?
A) Several days to weeks
B) Minutes to hours
C) Immediate
D) Months to years
Answer: B) Minutes to hours
Which immune response occurs upon the first exposure to an antigen?
A) Secondary immune response
B) Primary immune response
C) Tertiary immune response
D) Immediate hypersensitivity response
Answer: B) Primary immune response
What role do memory cells play in the secondary immune response?
A) They initiate the primary immune response.
B) They quickly recognize and respond to previously encountered antigens.
C) They destroy pathogens directly.
D) They prevent the formation of antibodies.
Answer: B) They quickly recognize and respond to previously encountered antigens.
Which immune response is characterized by a more intense and prolonged reaction compared to the other?
A) Primary immune response
B) Secondary immune response
C) Innate immune response
D) Acute inflammatory response
Answer: B) Secondary immune response
What typically happens to the level of antibodies in the blood after a secondary immune response?
A) The level remains unchanged.
B) The level decreases significantly.
C) The level increases rapidly and reaches higher levels than during the primary response.
D) The level decreases gradually over time.
Answer: C) The level increases rapidly and reaches higher levels than during the primary response.
When does the immune system generate memory cells?
A) During the secondary immune response
B) During the primary immune response
C) During the innate immune response
D) During an allergic reaction
Answer: B) During the primary immune response
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by IgE antibodies?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: A) Type I
Which type of hypersensitivity involves immune complexes depositing in tissues and causing inflammation?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: C) Type III
In which hypersensitivity type do T cells play a major role?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: D) Type III
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by a delayed response, typically occurring 24 to 48 hours after antigen exposure?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: D) Type IV
Which of the following is a common example of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Anaphylaxis
B) Allergic rhinitis
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Contact dermatitis
Answer: C) Hemolytic anemia
What is the primary mechanism underlying Type I hypersensitivity reactions?
A) Immune complex deposition
B) Antibody-mediated cell destruction
C) IgE binding to mast cells and basophils
D) T cell-mediated inflammation
Answer: C) IgE binding to mast cells and basophils
Which hypersensitivity type involves the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators from mast cells and basophils?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: A) Type I
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: C) Type III
Which of the following is an example of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Allergic asthma
B) Hemolytic disease of the newborn
C) Tuberculin skin test reaction
D) Serum sickness
Answer: C) Tuberculin skin test reaction
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction can be triggered by the exposure to poison ivy or nickel?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: D) Type IV
:
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by IgE antibodies?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: A) Type I
In which hypersensitivity reaction do immune complexes deposit in tissues and activate the complement system?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: C) Type III
Which type of hypersensitivity involves direct damage to cells through antibody-mediated cytotoxicity?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: B) Type II
Which hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by a delayed onset, typically occurring 24 to 48 hours after exposure to an antigen?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: D) Type IV
Which of the following is a common example of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Allergic rhinitis
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Serum sickness
D) Contact dermatitis
Answer: A) Allergic rhinitis
Which type of hypersensitivity is commonly involved in the reaction to a tuberculin skin test?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: D) Type IV
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia and Goodpasture syndrome?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: B) Type II
Which hypersensitivity type is primarily mediated by T lymphocytes rather than antibodies?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: D) Type IV
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction occurs within minutes to a few hours after exposure to an allergen?
A) Delayed hypersensitivity
B) Immediate hypersensitivity
C) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
D) Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity
Answer: B) Immediate hypersensitivity
Which hypersensitivity reaction is primarily mediated by IgE antibodies?
A) Type I hypersensitivity
B) Type II hypersensitivity
C) Type III hypersensitivity
D) Type IV hypersensitivity
Answer: A) Type I hypersensitivity
What type of hypersensitivity involves T lymphocytes and occurs 24 to 48 hours after antigen exposure?
A) Immediate hypersensitivity
B) Delayed hypersensitivity
C) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
D) Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity
Answer: B) Delayed hypersensitivity
Which of the following is a common example of immediate hypersensitivity?
A) Contact dermatitis
B) Tuberculin skin test reaction
C) Allergic rhinitis
D) Chronic transplant rejection
Answer: C) Allergic rhinitis
What is the primary mediator in delayed hypersensitivity reactions?
A) IgE antibodies
B) Histamine
C) T lymphocytes
D) Immune complexes
Answer: C) T lymphocytes
Which hypersensitivity type is characterized by the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators from mast cells and basophils?
A) Type I hypersensitivity
B) Type II hypersensitivity
C) Type III hypersensitivity
D) Type IV hypersensitivity
Answer: A) Type I hypersensitivity
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with conditions such as contact dermatitis and tuberculin skin tests?
A) Immediate hypersensitivity
B) Delayed hypersensitivity
C) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
D) Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity
Answer: B) Delayed hypersensitivity
What is the typical time frame for symptoms to appear in delayed hypersensitivity reactions?
A) Within minutes
B) Within hours
C) 24 to 48 hours
D) Several days
Answer: C) 24 to 48 hours
In which hypersensitivity reaction do sensitized T cells release cytokines that recruit and activate macrophages?
A) Type I hypersensitivity
B) Type II hypersensitivity
C) Type III hypersensitivity
D) Type IV hypersensitivity
Answer: D) Type IV hypersensitivity