Chapter Biological molecules
Q: Which of the following is a building block of proteins?
a) Glucose
b) Amino acid
c) Fatty acid
d) Nucleotide
Answer: b) Amino acid
Q: Which of the following is a disaccharide?
a) Glucose
b) Fructose
c) Sucrose
d) Cellulose
Answer: c) Sucrose
Q: Which lipids are important components of cell membranes?
a) Triglycerides
b) Phospholipids
c) Steroids
d) Waxes
Answer: b) Phospholipids
Q: What type of bond is formed between amino acids in a protein chain?
a) Ionic bond
b) Covalent bond
c) Hydrogen bond
d) Peptide bond
Answer: d) Peptide bond
Q: Which of the following is a monomer of nucleic acids?
a) Amino acid
b) Nucleotide
c) Monosaccharide
d) Glycerol
Answer: b) Nucleotide
Q: What is hydrolysis ?
a) The synthesis of large molecules from smaller ones with the release of water
b) The conversion of a gas to a liquid
c) The breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones with the addition of water
d) The conversion of a liquid to a gas
Answer: c) The breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones with the addition of water
Q: Glycogen is a polysaccharide that serves as a storage form of glucose in which type of cells?
a) Liver cells
b) Muscle cells
c) Nerve cells
d)both a & b
Answer: d)both a & b
Q: What is condensation ?
a) The conversion of a gas to a liquid
b) The synthesis of large molecules from smaller ones with the release of water
c) The breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones with the absorption of water
d) The conversion of a liquid to a gas
Answer: b) The synthesis of large molecules from smaller ones with the release of water
Q: Which of the following is a monosaccharide?
a) Sucrose
b) Fructose
c) Lactose
d) Maltose
Answer: b) Fructose
Q: What is the general chemical formula for carbohydrates?
a) C6H12O6
b) CH4
c) C2H5OH
d) CO2
Answer: a) C6H12O6
Q: Which polysaccharide serves as a long-term energy storage in animals?
a) Starch
b) Glycogen
c) Cellulose
d) Chitin
Answer: b) Glycogen
Q: Cellulose, a structural polysaccharide, is found in ?
a) Plant cell walls
b) Animal muscle cells
c) Nuclei of cells
d) Mitochondria
Answer: a) Plant cell walls
Q: What type of bond connects the two sugar units in a disaccharide?
a) Peptide bond
b) Glycosidic bond
c) Ionic bond
d) Covalent bond
Answer: b) Glycosidic bond
Q: What is the three-dimensional shape of a protein referred to as?
a) Secondary structure
b) Tertiary structure
c) Quaternary structure
d) Primary structure
Answer: b) Tertiary structure
Q: Enzymes, antibodies, and hemoglobin are examples of ?
a) Structural proteins
b) Storage proteins
c) Transport proteins
d) Functional proteins
Answer: d) Functional proteins
Q: Hemoglobin, composed of four subunits, is an example of?
a) Primary structure
b) Secondary structure
c) Tertiary structure
d) Quaternary structure
Answer: d) Quaternary structure
Q: Which type of bond is responsible for the secondary structure of proteins?
a) Peptide bond
b) Hydrogen bond
c) Ionic bond
d) Disulfide bond
Answer: b) Hydrogen bond
Q: Which lipid type is characterized by a four-ring structure?
a) Triglycerides
b) Phospholipids
c) Steroids
d) Waxes
Answer: c) Steroids
Q: Which fatty acid type is typically solid at room temperature?
a) Saturated fatty acids
b) Unsaturated fatty acids
c) Polyunsaturated fatty acids
d) Monounsaturated fatty acids
Answer: a) Saturated fatty acids
Q : Which of the following lipids is involved in the formation of hormones such as estrogen and testosterone?
a) Triglycerides
b) Phospholipids
c) Steroids
d) Waxes
Answer: c) Steroids
Q: Which of the following lipids is commonly found in beeswax and plant cuticles ?
a) Triglycerides
b) Phospholipids
c) Steroids
d) Waxes
Answer: d) Waxes
Q: What is the basic structure of a nucleotide?
a) Amino acid chain
b) Glycerol and fatty acids
c) Sugar, phosphate, and nitrogenous base
d) Monosaccharide ring
Answer: c) Sugar, phosphate, and nitrogenous base
Q: Which nucleotide is found in RNA but not in DNA?
a) Adenine (A)
b) Thymine (T)
c) Cytosine (C)
d) Uracil (U)
Answer: d) Uracil (U)
Q: Which of the following is an example of a purine base in nucleic acids?
a) Adenine (A)
b) Cytosine (C)
c) Thymine (T)
d) Uracil (U)
Answer: a) Adenine (A)
Q: Which type of RNA is involved in the formation of ribosomes?
a) mRNA
b) rRNA
c) tRNA
d) sRNA
Answer:b) rRNA
NTS BSN Entry Test Preparation
Chapter Enzyme
Q: What is the region on an enzyme where the substrate binds?
A. Active site
B. Inhibitory site
C. Coenzyme site
D. Allosteric site
Answer: A. Active site
Q: In which biomolecule category do enzymes belong ?
A. Lipids
B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates
D. Nucleic acids
Answer: B. Proteins
Q: The lock-and-key model of enzyme-substrate interaction suggests that ?
A. Enzymes can catalyze any substrate
B. Enzymes have a specific shape that fits a particular substrate
C. Enzymes change shape permanently upon binding to a substrate
D. Enzymes can bind to multiple substrates simultaneously
Answer: B. Enzymes have a specific shape that fits a particular substrate
Q: The induced fit model proposes that ?
A. Enzymes remain unchanged upon substrate binding
B. Enzymes undergo a conformational change upon substrate binding
C. Enzymes always bind substrates in a rigid, predetermined structure
D. Enzymes are not specific to particular substrates
Answer: B. Enzymes undergo a conformational change upon substrate binding
Q: What are coenzymes ?
A. Non-protein organic molecules that assist enzyme function
B. Proteins that make up the enzyme structure
C. Inorganic ions that stabilize enzymes
D. Substrates of enzyme-catalyzed reactions
Answer: A. Non-protein organic molecules that assist enzyme function
Q: Which vitamin is often a precursor to coenzymes involved in various enzyme reactions?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Answer: B. Vitamin B
Q: What is the primary function of enzymes in biological systems?
A. Energy storage
B. Structural support
C. Speeding up chemical reactions
D. Transporting molecules
Answer: C. Speeding up chemical reactions
Q: What is the role of an enzyme activator?
A. Inhibit enzyme activity
B. Activate enzyme activity
C. Change the substrate structure
D. Bind to the allosteric site
Answer: B. Activate enzyme activity
Q: Which metal ion can act as a cofactor and an activator for certain enzymes?
A. Zinc (Zn)
B. Iron (Fe)
C. Calcium (Ca)
D. Magnesium (Mg)
Answer: D. Magnesium (Mg)
Q: What is the role of cofactors in enzyme function?
A. Assist in catalysis
B. Bind to the substrate
C. Enhance enzyme stability
D. Inhibit enzyme activity
Answer: A. Assist in catalysis
Q: What is an example of a small organic molecule that can act as an enzyme activator ?
A. ATP (Adenosine triphosphate)
B. NAD+ (Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide)
C. AMP (Adenosine monophosphate)
D. Coenzyme A
Answer: C. AMP (Adenosine monophosphate)
Q: What term describes the three-dimensional shape of an enzyme that is crucial for its function?
A. Primary structure
B. Secondary structure
C. Tertiary structure
D. Quaternary structure
Answer: C. Tertiary structure
Q: What happens to the shape of an enzyme if it is exposed to extreme temperatures or pH levels?
A. It remains unchanged
B. It denatures
C. It multiplies
D. It becomes inactive
Answer: B. It denatures
Q: What is the term for a substance that an enzyme acts upon?
A. Inhibitor
B. Catalyst
C. Substrate
D. Coenzyme
Answer: C. Substrate
Q: Which factor can affect enzyme activity by changing the enzyme's shape?
A. pH
B. Temperature
C. Substrate concentration
D. Coenzyme presence
Answer: A. pH
Q: What is the term for a substance that binds to the allosteric site of an enzyme and inhibits its activity?
A. Cofactor
B. Coenzyme
C. Inhibitor
D. Activator
Answer: C. Inhibitor
Q: What is feedback inhibition?
A. Activation of an enzyme by a product
B. Inhibition of an enzyme by a product
C. Inhibition of an enzyme by a substrate
D. Activation of an enzyme by a cofactor
Answer: B. Inhibition of an enzyme by a product
Q : Competitive inhibition occurs when ?
A. The inhibitor binds to the active site
B. The inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site
C. The inhibitor enhances enzyme activity
D. The substrate cannot bind to the enzyme
Answer: A. The inhibitor binds to the active site
Q:Non-competitive inhibition occurs when an inhibitor binds to?
A. The active site
B. An allosteric site
C. The substrate
D. The coenzyme
Answer: B. An allosteric site
Q:What is a cofactor ?
A. A type of substrate
B. A type of enzyme
C. An inorganic or organic molecule required for enzyme activity
D. A product of enzyme-catalyzed reaction
Answer: C. An inorganic or organic molecule required for enzyme activity
Chapter The Cell
Q: Who is credited with the discovery of the cell?
A. Robert Hooke
B. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
C. Gregor Mendel
D. Charles Darwin
Answer: A. Robert Hooke
Q: Who is credited with the discovery of the nucleus in a cell?
A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
B. Robert Hooke
C. Matthias Schleiden
D. Robert Brown
Answer: D. Robert Brown
Q: What is the basic structural and functional unit of life?
A. Tissue
B. Organ
C. Cell
D. Organism
Answer: C. Cell
Q: Which of the following structures is typically absent in prokaryotic cells?
A. Ribosomes
B. Cell wall
C. Nucleus
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: C. Nucleus
Q: Which type of cell has a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles?
A. Prokaryotic cell
B. Eukaryotic cell
C. Plant cell
D. Animal cell
Answer: B. Eukaryotic cell
Q: What is the role of the spindle fibers during cell division?
A. Synthesis of proteins
B. Movement of the cell
C. Separation of chromosomes
D. Packaging of cell products
Answer: C. Separation of chromosomes
Q: Which cell organelle is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins for secretion?
A. Nucleus
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Ribosome
Answer: B. Golgi apparatus
Q: What is the primary function of the mitochondria in a cell?
A. Protein synthesis
B. Energy production (ATP synthesis)
C. Lipid synthesis
D. Detoxification
Answer: B. Energy production (ATP synthesis)
Q: Which organelle is responsible for detoxifying harmful substances in a cell?
A. Lysosome
B. Peroxisome
C. Nucleus
D. Ribosome
Answer: B. Peroxisome
Q: Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane?
A. Robert Hooke
B. James Watson
C. J. Singer and G. Nicolson
D. Matthias Schleiden
Answer: C. J. Singer and G. Nicolson
Q: What is the primary function of chloroplasts in photosynthesis?
A. Synthesis of pigments
B. Storage of starch
C. Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
D. Breakdown of cellular waste
Answer: C. Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
Q: Which protein subunit makes up microtubules in the cytoskeleton?
A. Actin
B. Myosin
C. Tubulin
D. Keratin
Answer: C. Tubulin
Q: Which cytoskeletal component is primarily composed of actin protein subunits?
A. Microtubules
B. Microfilaments
C. Intermediate filaments
D. Keratin filaments
Answer: B. Microfilaments
Q: Which component of the cell theory suggests that all cells come from pre-existing cells?
A. The cell is the basic unit of structure and function.
B. All living organisms are composed of cells.
C. Cells arise spontaneously.
D. Cells contain genetic material.
Answer: B. All living organisms are composed of cells
Q: What organelle in plant cells is primarily responsible for storing water, nutrients, and waste products?
A. Chloroplast
B. Nucleus
C. Vacuole
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: C. Vacuole
Q: In the fluid mosaic model, what is the lipid component of the cell membrane primarily composed of?
A. Triglycerides
B. Phospholipids
C. Steroids
D. Waxes
Answer: B. Phospholipids
Q: What is the total number of chromosomes, including both homologous pairs, in a diploid cell?
A. 23
B. 46
C. 22
D. 44
Answer: B. 46
Q: During which process of cell division are chromosomes replicated and divided equally between two daughter cells?
A. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
C. DNA Replication
D. Karyotyping
Answer: B. Mitosis
Q: Which chromosomes have a centromere located at or near one end, creating a short and a long arm?
A. Metacentric chromosomes
B. Submetacentric chromosomes
C. Acrocentric chromosomes
D. Telocentric chromosomes
Answer: C. Acrocentric chromosomes
Q: Which term describes chromosomes with a centromere that is slightly off-center, resulting in arms of unequal length?
A. Metacentric chromosomes
B. Submetacentric chromosomes
C. Acrocentric chromosomes
D. Telocentric chromosomes
Answer: B. Submetacentric chromosomes
Q: What is the color of leucoplasts?
A. Red
B. Green
C. Colorless
D. Blue
Answer: C. Colorless
Q: Which type of plastid is responsible for photosynthesis and contains the green pigment chlorophyll ?
A. Chromoplasts
B. Leucoplasts
C. Chloroplasts
D. Amyloplasts
Answer: C. Chloroplasts
Q : Which method involves spinning a sample at high speeds to separate components based on their weight?
A. Chromatography
B. Gel filtration
C. Centrifugation
D. Affinity chromatography
Answer: C. Centrifugation
Q: What is the primary purpose of fractionation?
A. Energy production
B. Separation of cellular components
C. Protein synthesis
D. DNA replication
Answer: B. Separation of cellular components
Chapter Cell Cycle
Q: During which phase of the cell cycle does the synthesis of new DNA occur?
A. G1 phase
B. G2 phase
C. S phase
D. M phase
Answer: C. S phase
Q: What is the term for programmed cell death?
A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Mitosis
D. Cytokinesis
Answer: B. Apoptosis
Q: When does crossing over occur in meiosis?
A. Pachytene
B. Diplotene
C. Zygotene
D. Leptotene
Answer: A. Pachytene
Q: Which phase of meiosis I is the longest?
A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase I
C. Anaphase I
D. Telophase I
Answer: A. Prophase I
Q: What is the term for the pairing of homologous chromosomes?
A. Conjugation
B. Synapsis
C. Crossing over
D. Diploid fusion
Answer: B. Synapsis
Q: The process by which a single cell gives rise to two genetically identical daughter cells is called ?
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Apoptosis
D. Differentiation
Answer: A. Mitosis
Q: Down syndrome is characterized by an extra copy of chromosome 21 and is an example of ?
A. Trisomy
B. Monosomy
C. Nullisomy
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Trisomy
Q: When does tetrad formation occur in cell division?
A. Prophase I of meiosis
B. Metaphase II of meiosis
C. Prophase of mitosis
D. Interphase of the cell cycle
Answer: A. Prophase I of meiosis
Q: When does tetrad formation occur in cell division?
A. Prophase I of meiosis
B. Metaphase II of meiosis
C. Prophase of mitosis
D. Interphase of the cell cycle
Answer:A. Prophase I of meiosis
Q: During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes start moving towards the opposite poles?
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
Answer: C. Anaphase
Q: In which types of cells does mitosis occur?
A. Diploid cells only
B. Haploid cells only
C. Both diploid and haploid cells
D. Monoploid cells
Answer: C. Both diploid and haploid cells
Q: In which type of cell division does spindle formation not occur?
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Amitosis
D. Cytokinesis
Answer: C. Amitosis
Q: What is the term for the period between two consecutive cell divisions?
A. Interphase
B. Metaphase
C. Telophase
D. Cytokinesis
Answer: A. Interphase
Q: Turner's syndrome is characterized by ?
A. A male having 2 X chromosomes
B. A female having 3 X chromosomes
C. A male having only 1 Y chromosome
D. A female having only 1 X chromosome
Answer: D. A female having only 1 X chromosome
Q: What term describes the phenomenon of uncontrolled cell division?
A. Apoptosis
B. Mitosis
C. Cancer
D. Differentiation
Answer: C. Cancer
Q: The spread of tumor cells and the establishment of secondary areas of growth is known as ?
A. Metastasis
B. Angiogenesis
C. Hyperplasia
D. Apoptosis
Answer: A. Metastasis
Q: In which type of cells does meiosis take place?
A. Body (somatic) cells
B. Reproductive (germ) cells
C. Both body and reproductive cells
D. None
Answer: B. Reproductive (germ) cells
Q: What term is used to describe the division of the cell nucleus during cell division?
A. Karyokinesis
B. Cytokinesis
C. Mitosis
D. Meiosis
Answer: A. Karyokinesis
Q: What is the specific region of the centromere, characterized by a unique base arrangement and specific proteins, where spindle fibers attach during cell division?
A. Chromatid
B. Centriole
C. Kinetochore
D. Telomere
Answer: C. Kinetochore
Q: What are microtubules composed of?
A. Actin
B. Tubulin
C. Myosin
D. Keratin
Answer: B. Tubulin
Q: During which stage of meiosis does the centromere divide?
A. Prophase II
B. Metaphase II
C. Anaphase II
D. Telophase II
Answer: C. Anaphase II
Q: What is the term for the inability of chromosomes to segregate during anaphase and telophase of meiosis?
A. Nondisjunction
B. Translocation
C. Crossing over
D. Independent assortment
Answer: A. Nondisjunction
Q: The best stage for studying the morphology of chromosomes is?
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
Answer: B. Metaphase
Chapter Kingdom Animalia
Q: The phylum that includes animals with a water vascular system and tube feet is?
A. Mollusca
B. Echinodermata
C. Annelida
D. Nematoda
Answer: B. Echinodermata
Q: In which group of animals is radial symmetry commonly found?
A. Mollusks
B. Arthropods
C. Cnidarians
D. Annelids
Answer: C. Cnidarians
Q: The phylum that includes animals with a segmented body and jointed appendages is?
A. Annelida
B. Mollusca
C. Arthropoda
D. Echinodermata
Answer: C. Arthropoda
Q: Which term describes animals with a body cavity that is only partially lined with mesoderm, creating a false body cavity?
A. Acoelomate
B. Pseudocoelomate
C. Coelomate
D. Endocoelomate
Answer: B. Pseudocoelomate
Q: Flame cells are the excretory structures for?
A. Annelids
B. Arachnids
C. Flatworms (Platyhelminthes)
D. Insects
Answer: C. Flatworms (Platyhelminthes)
Q: In which group of chordates does the notochord persist throughout life and extend all along the length of the body?
A. Urochordata
B. Cephalochordata
C. Craniata
D. Myxini
Answer: B. Cephalochordata
Q: To which phylum does the organism Periplaneta belong?
A. Arthropoda
B. Mollusca
C. Annelida
D. Chordata
Answer: A. Arthropoda
Q: The tiny bristle-like structures on the body of an earthworm, called setae, play a crucial role in?
A. Food digestion
B. Circulatory system
C. Locomotion
D. Sensory perception
Answer: C. Locomotion
Q: How is filariasis transmitted to humans?
A. Through mosquito bite
B. Through flea bite
C. Through tick bite
D. Through sandfly bite
Answer: A. Through mosquito bite
Q: Octopuses and squids belong to which class in the phylum Mollusca?
A. Gastropoda
B. Bivalvia
C. Cephalopoda
D. Polyplacophora
Answer: C. Cephalopoda
Q: Which of the following is a free-living example of Platyhelminthes?
A.Dugesia
B.Fasciola
C.Taenia
D.None of these
Answer: A. Dugesia
Q: Which phylum encompasses animals characterized by a radula, mantle, and a muscular foot?
A. Arthropoda
B. Mollusca
C. Annelida
D. Chordata
Answer: B. Mollusca
Q: Which of the following marine organisms possesses a Water-Vascular System?
A. Sea-anemone
B. Sea-pen
C. Sea-cucumber
D. Sea-horse
Answer: C. Sea-cucumber
Q: "Pinworm" is a common name used for which parasitic worm?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Taenia solium
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Trichinella spiralis
Answer: C. Enterobius vermicularis
Q: The coelom produced by the splitting of mesoderm is called?
A. Acoelom
B. Pseudocoelom
C. Enterocoel
D. Schizocoel
Answer: D. Schizocoel
Q: Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach, and crab are?
A. Jointed legs and exoskeleton
B. Segmentation and open circulatory system
C. Compound eyes and tracheal respiration
D. Setae and antennae
Answer: A. Jointed legs and exoskeleton
Q: The internal buds are known as ?
A. Gemmules
B. Zooids
C. Strobila
D. Bryozoans
Answer: A. Gemmules
Q: The phylum that includes animals with a soft, unsegmented body and a mantle is?
A. Mollusca
B. Annelida
C. Arthropoda
D. Platyhelminthes
Answer: A. Mollusca
Q: Chondrichthyes are characterized by?
A. A dorsally placed mouth.
B. A bony exoskeleton with scales.
C. A cartilaginous exoskeleton with placoid scales that are dermal in origin.
D. Endoskeleton made of bone.
Answer: C. A cartilaginous exoskeleton with placoid scales that are dermal in origin.
Q: Chondrichthyes are characterized by?
A. A dorsally placed mouth.
B. A bony exoskeleton with scales.
C. A cartilaginous exoskeleton with placoid scales that are dermal in origin.
D. Endoskeleton made of bone.
Answer: C. A cartilaginous exoskeleton with placoid scales that are dermal in origin.
Q: The skeleton of sponges is in the form of variously shaped needle-like structures called?
A. Spicules
B. Stolons
C. Setae
D. Radula
Answer: A. Spicules
Q: Which of the following are motile zooids in cnidarians?
A. Polyps
B. Medusae
C. Cnidocytes
D. Gastrozooids
Answer: B. Medusae
Q : What is the skeleton of phylum Coelenterata typically made up of?
A. Chitin
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Silica
D. Collagen
Answer: B. Calcium carbonate
Chapter Kingdom Plantae
Q: The non vascular plants are known as?
A. Tracheophytes
B. Bryophytes
C. Gymnosperms
D. Angiosperms
Answer: B. Bryophytes
Q: Plants with xylem and phloem are Known as ?
A. Algae
B. Bryophytes
C. Tracheophytes
D. Marchantia
Answer: C. Tracheophytes
Q: What tissue is responsible for the transport of water and minerals from roots to shoots in vascular plants?
A. Meristematic tissue
B. Dermal tissue
C. Xylem
D. Phloem
Answer: C. Xylem
Q: Which group of plants is characterized by the presence of "naked" seeds, not enclosed in a fruit?
A. Angiosperms
B. Gymnosperms
C. Pteridophyta
D. Bryophyta
Answer: B. Gymnosperms
Q: The group of seed plants known as?
A. Psilopsida
B. Lycopsida
C. Spermopsida
D. Pteropsida
Answer: C. Spermopsida
Q: In which plant division are seeds enclosed in fruits?
A. Gymnosperms
B. Pteridophyta
C. Angiosperms
D. Bryophyta
Answer: C. Angiosperms
Q: Rhynia and psilotum belongs to which group of plants?
A. Psilopsida
B. Spermopsida
C. Bryophyta
D. None of these
Answer: A. Psilopsida
Q: A Common liverwort is known as ?
A. Pinus
B. Fern
C. Equisetum
D. Marchantia
Answer: D. Marchantia
Q: Plant bear two types of spores are known as?
A. Heterozygous
B. Homozygous
C. Heterosporous
D. None
Answer: C. Heterosporous
Q: Pollen grains are prouced by which part of stamen ?
A. Style
B. Connective
C. Filament
D. Anther
Answer: D. Anther
Q: In the classification of plants, which division includes cone-bearing plants like pine trees ?
A. Angiosperms
B. Pteridophyta
C. Bryophyta
D. Gymnosperms
Answer: D. Gymnosperms
Q: In angiosperms, what is the male gamete contained within a pollen grain called?
A. Sperm
B. Zygote
C. Pollen tube
D. Egg cell
Answer: A. Sperm
Q: Which of the following is a non-vascular plant?
A. Fern
B. Pine tree
C. Moss
D. Rose plant
Answer: C. Moss
Q: The stalk of sporangium is known as _________ ?
A. Sporangiophore
B. Sporophore
C. Peitole
D. None
Answer: A. Sporangiophore
Q: In which plant tissue does cell division primarily occur, leading to growth in length?
A. Dermal tissue
B. Vascular tissue
C. Meristematic tissue
D. Ground tissue
Answer: C. Meristematic tissue
Q: Gemma cups are found in?
A. Pinus
B. Marchantia
C. Rhizopus
D. Selaginella
Answer: B. Marchantia
Q: Which process involves the transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma in flowering plants?
A. Fertilization
B. Germination
C. Pollination
D. Photosynthesis
Answer: C. Pollination
Q: Fern belong to which division of plants?
A. Angiosperms
B. Pteridophyta
C. Spermophyta
D. Gymnosperms
Answer: B. Pteridophyta
Q: Which term is used to describe the division of angiosperms that typically have one cotyledon in their seeds ?
A. Monocots
B. Dicots
C. Gymnosperms
D. Bryophytes
Answer: A. Monocots
Q: Which plant division includes ferns, characterized by vascular tissues and spore reproduction ?
A. Bryophyta
B. Pteridophyta
C. Gymnosperms
D. Angiosperms
Answer: B. Pteridophyta
Q: Horse tail is also known as ?
A. Moss
B. Marchantia
C. Equisetum
D. Selaginella
Answer: C. Equisetum
Q: Which part of the flower typically develops into the fruit after fertilization ?
A. Stigma
B. Ovary
C. Sepal
D. Petal
Answer: B. Ovary
Q: Common example of conifers is ?
A. Oak
B. Maple
C. Pine
D. Rose
Answer: C. Pine
Q: Androecium is a collection of?
A. Sepals
B. Petals
C. Stamens
D. Carpels
Answer: C. Stamens
Q: In the family Solanaceae, the placentation is ?
A. Axile
B. Basal
C. Marginal
D. Parietal
Answer: A. Axile
Chapter Bioenergetics
Q: Where does photosynthesis take place ?
A. Leucolast
B. Chloroplast
C. Mitochondria
D. Cytoplasm
Answer: B. Chloroplast
Q: A chloroplast consists of many flattened sac like structures Known as ?
A. Stroma
B. Thylakoids
C. Matrix
D. Filaments
Answer: B. Thylakoids
Q: What are the primary raw materials required for photosynthesis?
A. Carbon dioxide and water
B. Oxygen and glucose
C. Nitrogen and sunlight
D. ATP and NADPH
Answer: A. Carbon dioxide and water
Q: What are the end products of photosynthesis?
A. Carbon dioxide and water
B. Glucose and oxygen
C. Nitrogen and water
D. Water and Oxygen
Answer: B. Glucose and oxygen
Q: Calvin-Benson cycle is known as?
A. Kreb Cycle
B. Dark Reaction
C. Photo Reaction
D. Light Reaction
Answer: B. Dark Reaction
Q: Splitting of water take place in which reaction ?
A. Dark Reaction
B. Calvin Reaction
C. Light Reaction
D. Phosphorylation
Answer: C. Light Reaction
Q: the process of carbon fixation in which CO2 combines with other organic molecules is known?
A. Reduction
B. Carboxylation
C. Oxidation
D. Carbonation
Answer: B. Carboxylation
Q: The antenna complex light-capturing part of the plant consist of ?
A. Chlorophyll a, Chlorophyll b, Carotein
B. Chlorophyll a, Carotein
C. Chlorophyll b, Phycocoynain
D. Chlorophyll a, Phycocoynain
Answer: A. Chlorophyll a, Chlorophyll b, Carotein
Q: Which is a key enzyme used in the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis?
A. Phosphoglycerate
B. Reductase
C. Rubisco
D. Oxidase
Answer: C. Rubisco
Q: Which molecule carries high-energy electrons to the electron transport chain during cellular respiration?
A. NADH
B. FDA
C. ATP
D. ADP
Answer: A. NADH
Q: Which molecule is commonly referred to as the "energy currency" of the cell?
A. NADPH
B. ATP
C. FADH2
D. GTP
Answer: B. ATP
Q: Where does the Krebs cycle take place in the cell?
A. Nucleus
B. Cytoplasm
C. Mitochondrial matrix
D. Chloroplast
Answer: C. Mitochondrial matrix
Q: Which of the following processes occurs in both cellular respiration and fermentation?
A. Electron transport chain
B. Glycolysis
C. Krebs cycle
D. Calvin cycle
Answer: B. Glycolysis
Q: What are the end products of glycolysis?
A. Glucose and oxygen
B. Pyruvate, ATP, and NADH
C. Citric acid and FADH2
D. Starch and carbon dioxide
Answer: B. Pyruvate, ATP, and NADH
Q: During anaerobic respiration, what is the end product in animals?
A. Lactic acid
B. Ethanol
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Acetic acid
Answer: A. Lactic acid
Q: Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate in glycolysis?
A. Hexokinase
B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Phosphoglucose isomerase
D. Aldolase
Answer: C. Phosphoglucose isomerase
Q: In Kreb cycle Acetyl Co A Changed into ?
A. Oxalic acid
B. Malic acid
C. Citric acid
D. Acetic acid
Answer: C. Citric acid
Q: What is the net gain of ATP molecules per molecule of glucose during glycolysis?
A. 0 ATP
B. 1 ATP
C. 2 ATP
D. 4 ATP
Answer: C. 2 ATP
Q: In which part of the chloroplast does the Calvin cycle take place?
A. Thylakoid membrane
B. Outer membrane
C. Stroma
D. Intermembrane space
Answer: C. Stroma
Q: During which stage of cellular respiration is carbon dioxide produced?
A. Glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. Electron transport chain
D. Fermentation
Answer: B. Krebs cycle
Q: What is the product formed when pyruvic acid is converted during the link reaction between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?
A. Lactic acid
B. Acetyl-CoA
C. Citrate
D. Oxaloacetate
Answer: B. Acetyl-CoA
Q: The alternative mechanism of the carbon-fixation (dark reaction ) process of photosynthesis occur in?
A. C4 plant
B. C3 plant
C. C2 plant
D. None of these
Answer: B. C3 plant
Q: What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Water
D. NADH
Answer: A. Oxygen
Q: During which stage of photosynthesis is oxygen produced?
A. Light-dependent reactions
B. Calvin cycle
C. Glycolysis
D. Electron transport chain
Answer: A. Light-dependent reactions
Chapter Reproduction
Q: What is the term for the fusion of two gametes that are dissimilar in size?
A. Isogamy
B. Anisogamy
C. Oogamy
D. Homogamy
Answer: B. Anisogamy
Q: Flowers with both androecium and gynoecium are characterized as ?
A. Unisexual flowers
B. Bisexual flowers
C. Dioecious flowers
D. None
Answer: B. Bisexual flowers
Q: What is the term for the resumption of normal growth by a dormant embryo?
A. Germination
B. Fertilization
C. Implantation
D. Budding
Answer: A. Germination
Q: In angiosperms, what does the megasporangium (ovule) give rise to after fertilization?
A. Pollen grain
B. Embryo sac
C. Seed
D. Stamen
Answer: C. Seed
Q: In sexual reproduction, plants exhibit a diplohaplontic life cycle with alternating ?
A. Diploid sporophyte & haploid gametophyte generations
B. Haploid sporophyte & diploid gametophyte generations
C. Diploid sporophyte & diploid gametophyte generations
D. Haploid sporophyte & haploid gametophyte generations
Answer: A. Diploid sporophyte & haploid gametophyte generations
Q: In which group of plants is double fertilization a unique reproductive feature?
A. Gymnosperms
B. Angiosperms
C. Bryophytes
D. Pteridophytes
Answer: B. Angiosperms
Q: Which of the following is a method of asexual reproduction in plants ?
A. Pollination
B. Double fertilization
C. Vegetative propagation
D. Cross-pollination
Answer: C. Vegetative propagation
Q: What are the two distinct portions produced by double fertilization within the seed?
A. Cotyledon and epicotyl
B. Zygote and endosperm
C. Embryo and seed coat
D. Root and shoot
Answer: B. Zygote and endosperm
Q: What is the term for the development of an egg into a zygote without fertilization?
A. Parthenogenesis
B. Apomixis
C. Pollination
D. Gametogenesis
Answer: A. Parthenogenesis
Q: What is the term for an organism possessing both male and female reproductive organs?
A. Unisexual
B. Hermaphrodite
C. Asexual
D. None of these
Answer: B. Hermaphrodite
Q: In oogenesis, which stage forms a membrane known as zona pellucida?
A. Primary oocyte
B. Secondary oocyte
C. Oogonium
D. Ovum
Answer: B. Secondary oocyte
Q: What is the term for the transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa?
A. Spermatogenesis
B. Spermiogenesis
C. Gametogenesis
D. Fertilization
Answer: B. Spermiogenesis
Q: Which hormone, produced by the corpus luteum, plays a key role in maintaining pregnancy?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. LH
D. FSH
Answer: B. Progesterone
Q: In males, what hormone stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone?
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
C. Prolactin
D. Inhibin
Answer: B. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Q: Which hormone is responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sexual characteristics?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Testosterone
D. Prolactin
Answer: A. Estrogen
Q: What is the alternative name for the mesonephric duct?
A. Wolffian duct
B. Müllerian duct
C. Vas deferens
D. Epididymis
Answer: A. Wolffian duct
Q: What is the temporary organ that connects a mammalian mother to its fetus?
A. Placenta
B. Umbilical cord
C. Amniotic sac
D. Ovary
Answer: A. Placenta
Q: What organelle aids the sperm in penetrating the ovum?
A. Nucleus
B. Acrosome
C. Centriole
D. Mitochondrion
Answer: B. Acrosome
Q: Where does the vas deferens receive fluid from___________ and where does it open into?
A. Epididymis, opens into seminal vesicles
B. Prostate gland, opens into the urethra
C. Seminal vesicles, opens into the urethra
D. Urethra opens into vas deferens
Answer: C. Seminal vesicles, opens into the urethra
Q: Progesterone is primarily secreted by?
A. Ripening follicles
B. Uterine epithelium
C. Corpus luteum
D. Fertilized egg
Answer: C. Corpus luteum
Q: Fertility in females typically ends in?
A. Menopause
B. Pregnancy
C. Ovulation
D. Puberty
Answer: A. Menopause
Q: In animals, the production of gametes occurs through?
A. Regeneration
B. Fragmentation
C. Mitosis
D. Meiosis
Answer: D. Meiosis
Q: What serves as the birth canal during the process of childbirth?
A. Uterus
B. Vagina
C. Cervix
D. Fallopian tube
Answer: B. Vagina
Chapter Support and Movement
Q: The growth in the apex of a young stem that takes place in a zigzag manner due to an alternate change in growth rate on opposite sides of the apex is known as?
A. Tropism
B. Hydrotropism
C. Nutation
D. Phototropism
Answer: C. Nutation
Q: What type of plant movement occurs due to faster growth of the upper side of the organ ?
A. Turgor movement
B. Nastic movement
C. Epinastic movement
D. Phototropic movement
Answer: C. Epinastic movement
Q:Which muscle serves as the antagonist to the biceps brachii?
A. Brachioradialis
B. Brachialis
C. Intercostals
D. Triceps
Answer: D. Triceps
Q: Which substance is impregnated in the secondary cell wall of sclerenchyma cells?
A. Starch
B. Lignin
C. Pectin
D. Cellulose
Answer: B. Lignin
Q: Secondary growth in plants primarily begins with the activity of which meristems?
A. Apical meristem
B. Lateral meristem
C. Intercalary meristem
D. Root apical meristem
Answer: B. Lateral meristem
Q: How is higher turgor pressure in a plant cell maintained?
A. Large number of vacuoles in a plant cell.
B. Higher ionic concentration inside vacuoles resulting from active pumping of ions at their tonoplastic membrane
C. Higher osmotic pressure of the cell vacuole
D. Both B and C
Answer: D. Both B and C
Q: What is the term for the movement of a plant in response to touch?
A. Phototropism
B. Geotropism
C. Thigmotropism
D. Hydrotropism
Answer: C. Thigmotropism
Q: Which band shortens during muscle contraction?
A. A band
B. I band
C. H band
D. M band
Answer: B. I band
Q: The joint formed between the humerus, radius, and ulna is?
A. Hinge joint
B. Ball-and-socket joint
C. Pivot joint
D. Gliding joint
Answer: A. Hinge joint
Q:What are the cells responsible for dissolving bone tissue?
A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteocytes
C. Osteons
D. Osteoclasts
Answer: D. Osteoclasts
Q: What is the term for the process in which arthropods shed their exoskeletons?
A. Ecdysis
B. Molting
C. Exuviation
D. Both A & B
Answer: D. Both A & B
Q: In the structural arrangement of actin and myosin in the A band of a sarcomere, each myosin filament is surrounded by?
A. One actin filament
B. Two actin filaments
C. Three actin filaments
D. Six actin filaments
Answer: D. Six actin filaments
Q: Which one of the following is an avascular structure?
A. A compact bone.
B. A spongy bone.
C. Cartilage
D. All of these
Answer: C. Cartilage
Q: Where does the transmission of motor nerve impulses to the skeletal muscle cell membranes occur?
A. Synaptic cleft
B. Neuromuscular junction
C. Axon terminal
D. Myofibril
Answer: B. Neuromuscular junction
Q: What is the term for the region of a myofibril between two successive Z-lines?
A. Sarcomere
B. Myofibril section
C. Z-disc region
D. Actomyosin segment
Answer: A. Sarcomere
Q: How many vertebrae are typically present in the neck or cervical region of a human?
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Nine
D. Twelve
Answer: B. Seven
Q: Some skeletal muscles terminate into a tough, non-elastic tissue known as?
A. Ligaments
B. Tendons
C. Cartilage
D. Fascia
Answer: B. Tendons
Q: What is the disorder characterized by porous and thin bones, with normal bone composition?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Osteoporosis
C. Rickets
D. Osteomalacia
Answer: B. Osteoporosis
Q: The movement of sperm of liverworts, mosses, and ferns towards the archegonia is primarily associated with a phenomenon called?
A. Chemotropic movement
B. Chemotactic movement
C. Chemosastic movement
D. Haptonastic movement
Answer: B. Chemotactic movement
Q: In angiosperms, the tissue responsible for producing secondary xylem and secondary phloem ?
A. Epidermis
B. Cortex
C. Vascular cambium
D. Pericycle
Answer: C. Vascular cambium
Q: Each hip bone (coxae) of the pelvic girdle is composed of three fused bones. What are these three bones?
A. Tibia, fibula, patella
B. Ilium, ischium, pubis
C. Radius, ulna, humerus
D. Ilium, ischium, patella
Answer: B. Ilium, ischium, pubis
Q: What term is used for muscles that draw a bone away from the body midline?
A. Flexor muscles
B. Extensor muscles
C. Adductor muscles
D. Abductor muscles
Answer: D. Abductor muscles
Q: Muscular dystrophy is a congenital disorder primarily characterized by?
A. Skeletal muscle degeneration
B. Excessive convulsions
C. Shaking and trembling
D. Only cardiac damage
Answer: A. Skeletal muscle degeneration
Q: The growth in the apex of a young stem that takes place in a zigzag manner due to an alternate change in growth rate on opposite sides of the apex is known as?
A. Tropism
B. Hydrotropism
C. Nutation
D. Phototropism
Answer: C. Nutation
Q: What type of plant movement occurs due to faster growth of the upper side of the organ ?
A. Turgor movement
B. Nastic movement
C. Epinastic movement
D. Phototropic movement
Answer: C. Epinastic movement
Q:Which muscle serves as the antagonist to the biceps brachii?
A. Brachioradialis
B. Brachialis
C. Intercostals
D. Triceps
Answer: D. Triceps
Q: Which substance is impregnated in the secondary cell wall of sclerenchyma cells?
A. Starch
B. Lignin
C. Pectin
D. Cellulose
Answer: B. Lignin
Q: Secondary growth in plants primarily begins with the activity of which meristems?
A. Apical meristem
B. Lateral meristem
C. Intercalary meristem
D. Root apical meristem
Answer: B. Lateral meristem
Q: How is higher turgor pressure in a plant cell maintained?
A. Large number of vacuoles in a plant cell.
B. Higher ionic concentration inside vacuoles resulting from active pumping of ions at their tonoplastic membrane
C. Higher osmotic pressure of the cell vacuole
D. Both B and C
Answer: D. Both B and C
Q: What is the term for the movement of a plant in response to touch?
A. Phototropism
B. Geotropism
C. Thigmotropism
D. Hydrotropism
Answer: C. Thigmotropism
Q: Which band shortens during muscle contraction?
A. A band
B. I band
C. H band
D. M band
Answer: B. I band
Q: The joint formed between the humerus, radius, and ulna is?
A. Hinge joint
B. Ball-and-socket joint
C. Pivot joint
D. Gliding joint
Answer: A. Hinge joint
Q:What are the cells responsible for dissolving bone tissue?
A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteocytes
C. Osteons
D. Osteoclasts
Answer: D. Osteoclasts
Q: What is the term for the process in which arthropods shed their exoskeletons?
A. Ecdysis
B. Molting
C. Exuviation
D. Both A & B
Answer: D. Both A & B
Q: In the structural arrangement of actin and myosin in the A band of a sarcomere, each myosin filament is surrounded by?
A. One actin filament
B. Two actin filaments
C. Three actin filaments
D. Six actin filaments
Answer: D. Six actin filaments
Q: Which one of the following is an avascular structure?
A. A compact bone.
B. A spongy bone.
C. Cartilage
D. All of these
Answer: C. Cartilage
Q: Where does the transmission of motor nerve impulses to the skeletal muscle cell membranes occur?
A. Synaptic cleft
B. Neuromuscular junction
C. Axon terminal
D. Myofibril
Answer: B. Neuromuscular junction
Q: What is the term for the region of a myofibril between two successive Z-lines?
A. Sarcomere
B. Myofibril section
C. Z-disc region
D. Actomyosin segment
Answer: A. Sarcomere
Q: How many vertebrae are typically present in the neck or cervical region of a human?
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Nine
D. Twelve
Answer: B. Seven
Q: Some skeletal muscles terminate into a tough, non-elastic tissue known as?
A. Ligaments
B. Tendons
C. Cartilage
D. Fascia
Answer: B. Tendons
Q: What is the disorder characterized by porous and thin bones, with normal bone composition?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Osteoporosis
C. Rickets
D. Osteomalacia
Answer: B. Osteoporosis
Q: The movement of sperm of liverworts, mosses, and ferns towards the archegonia is primarily associated with a phenomenon called?
A. Chemotropic movement
B. Chemotactic movement
C. Chemosastic movement
D. Haptonastic movement
Answer: B. Chemotactic movement
Q: In angiosperms, the tissue responsible for producing secondary xylem and secondary phloem ?
A. Epidermis
B. Cortex
C. Vascular cambium
D. Pericycle
Answer: C. Vascular cambium
Q: Each hip bone (coxae) of the pelvic girdle is composed of three fused bones. What are these three bones?
A. Tibia, fibula, patella
B. Ilium, ischium, pubis
C. Radius, ulna, humerus
D. Ilium, ischium, patella
Answer: B. Ilium, ischium, pubis
Q: What term is used for muscles that draw a bone away from the body midline?
A. Flexor muscles
B. Extensor muscles
C. Adductor muscles
D. Abductor muscles
Answer: D. Abductor muscles
Muscular dystrophy is a congenital disorder primarily characterized by?
A. Skeletal muscle degeneration
B. Excessive convulsions
C. Shaking and trembling
D. Only cardiac damage
Answer: A. Skeletal muscle degeneration